Riddles about numbers

cleanlogicsimple

"Welcome back to the show. Before the break, Mr Ixolite here made it to our grand finale! How do you feel Mr.Ix?" "Nervous." "Okay, now to win the star prize of one million pounds all you have to do is answer the following question in 90 seconds." "Okay, I'm ready." "Right. In 90 seconds name 100 words that do NOT contain the letter 'A'. Start the clock!" Can you help?
One, two, three, four, five...one hundred! I just counted from 1 to 100 in ninety seconds (it is possible).
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84 votes
logicmath

You have a basket of infinite size (meaning it can hold an infinite number of objects). You also have an infinite number of balls, each with a different number on it, starting at 1 and going up (1, 2, 3, etc...). A genie suddenly appears and proposes a game that will take exactly one minute. The game is as follows: The genie will start timing 1 minute on his stopwatch. Where there is 1/2 a minute remaining in the game, he'll put balls 1, 2, and 3 into the basket. At the exact same moment, you will grab a ball out of the basket (which could be one of the balls he just put in, or any ball that is already in the basket) and throw it away. Then when 3/4 of the minute has passed, he'll put in balls 4, 5, and 6, and again, you'll take a ball out and throw it away. Similarly, at 7/8 of a minute, he'll put in balls 7, 8, and 9, and you'll take out and throw away one ball. Similarly, at 15/16 of a minute, he'll put in balls 10, 11, and 12, and you'll take out and throw away one ball. And so on....After the minute is up, the genie will have put in an infinite number of balls, and you'll have thrown away an infinite number of balls. Assume that you pull out a ball at the exact same time the genie puts in 3 balls, and that the amount of time this takes is infinitesimally small. You are allowed to choose each ball that you pull out as the game progresses (for example, you could choose to always pull out the ball that is divisible by 3, which would be 3, then 6, then 9, and so on...). You play the game, and after the minute is up, you note that there are an infinite number of balls in the basket. The next day you tell your friend about the game you played with the genie. "That's weird," your friend says. "I played the exact same game with the genie yesterday, except that at the end of my game there were 0 balls left in the basket." How is it possible that you could end up with these two different results?
Your strategy for choosing which ball to throw away could have been one of many. One such strategy that would leave an infinite number of balls in the basket at the end of the game is to always choose the ball that is divisible by 3 (so 3, then 6, then 9, and so on...). Thus, at the end of the game, any ball of the format 3n+1 (i.e. 1, 4, 7, etc...), or of the format 3n+2 (i.e. 2, 5, 8, etc...) would still be in the basket. Since there will be an infinite number of such balls that the genie has put in, there will be an infinite number of balls in the basket. Your friend could have had a number of strategies for leaving 0 balls in the basket. Any strategy that guarantees that every ball n will be removed after an infinite number of removals will result in 0 balls in the basket. One such strategy is to always choose the lowest-numbered ball in the basket. So first 1, then 2, then 3, and so on. This will result in an empty basket at the game's end. To see this, assume that there is some ball in the basket at the end of the game. This ball must have some number n. But we know this ball was thrown out after the n-th round of throwing balls away, so it couldn't be in there. This contradiction shows that there couldn't be any balls left in the basket at the end of the game. An interesting aside is that your friend could have also used the strategy of choosing a ball at random to throw away, and this would have resulted in an empty basket at the end of the game. This is because after an infinite number of balls being thrown away, the probability of any given ball being thrown away reaches 100% when they are chosen at random.
76.91 %
68 votes
logicmathclean

Consider the following explanation for why 1=2: 1. Start out Let y = x 2. Multiply through by x xy = x2 3. Subtract y2 from each side xy - y2 = x2 - y2 4. Factor each side y(x-y) = (x+y)(x-y) 5. Divide both sides by (x-y) y = x+y 6. Divide both sides by y y/y = x/y + y/y 7. And so... 1 = x/y + 1 8. Since x=y, x/y = 1 1 = 1 + 1 8. And so... 1 = 2 How is this possible?
Step 5 is invalid, because we are dividing by (x-y), and since x=y, we are thus dividing by 0. This is an invalid mathematical operation (division by 0), and so by not followinng basic mathematical rules, we are able to get strange results like these.
76.83 %
73 votes
logicmath

Note: This riddle must be done IN YOUR HEAD ONLY and NOT using paper and a pen. Take 1000 and add 40 to it. Now add another 1000. Now add 30. Another 1000. Now add 20. Now add another 1000. Now add 10. What is the total?
The answer is 4100, check it out on a calculator. Did you think it was 5000? Most people add the 100 as 1000 by mistake.
76.80 %
57 votes
logicmath

Assume: 5+3+2 = 151022 9+2+4 = 183652 8+6+3 = 482466 5+4+5 = 202541 Then; 7+2+5 = ?
143547 Explanations: Multiplication of the 1st & 2nd numbers, 5*3 = 15; 9*2 = 18…thusly, 7*2 = 14 Multiplication of the 1st & 3rd numbers, 5*2 = 10; 9*4 = 36…thusly, 7*5 = 35; Multiplication of the 1st & the sum of the 2nd & 3rd numbers. The generated result is reduced by the value of the 2nd number, …thusly, 7*(2+5) = 49 - 2 = 47
76.41 %
56 votes
cleanlogicmath

How do you make the number 7 an even number without addition, subtraction, multiplication, or division?
Drop the "S".
76.32 %
61 votes
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